Everyone seems to like running HCG at the end of a suppressing cycle. Is it really that effective? According to my theory i would say not but i am not basing this off of anecdotal evidence or actual HCG testing.
So... We all know the negative feedback loop involving HPTA but if you dont, then here is a quick summary. The hypothalamus releases GnRH (gonadotropic releasing hormone) to the anterior pituitary through the hypophysial portal system. The pituitary in response to this hormone secretes LH (luteinizing hormone) and FSH (follicle stumulating hormone) whos target is the the leydig and sertoli cells of the testis respectively. LH causes testosterone production and FSH causes spermatogenesis. Testosterone circulates in blood bound to SHBG and has an effect at the hypothalamus and pituitary. Increased test inhibits GnRH at hypothalamus and LH at anterior pituitary. Thus the increased test from aas usage causes shutdown and we run pct
Now, HCG is a LHR (LH-receptor) agonist, which tricks the testis into producing testosterone.
This is where my theory comes in.
According to scientific data, when the GnRH causes LH and FSH secretion, there is a permissive action of FSH on LH receptors. The action of LH is dependent on FSH induction at Leydig cells. FSH increases LHR population in Leydig cells, thus increasing the response to LH.
Now it comes together.
At the end of a cycle, both LH and FSH secretion are minimal due to negative feedback loops. When we take HCG to mimic LH action of testosterone production are we really doing much considering the low concentration of FSH? My theory would say no, but again this is just theory.
Could an FSH analog increase the effectivness of HCG by permissive action during pct?
Anyway i thought this would be an interesting discussion.
What do you guys think?
So... We all know the negative feedback loop involving HPTA but if you dont, then here is a quick summary. The hypothalamus releases GnRH (gonadotropic releasing hormone) to the anterior pituitary through the hypophysial portal system. The pituitary in response to this hormone secretes LH (luteinizing hormone) and FSH (follicle stumulating hormone) whos target is the the leydig and sertoli cells of the testis respectively. LH causes testosterone production and FSH causes spermatogenesis. Testosterone circulates in blood bound to SHBG and has an effect at the hypothalamus and pituitary. Increased test inhibits GnRH at hypothalamus and LH at anterior pituitary. Thus the increased test from aas usage causes shutdown and we run pct
Now, HCG is a LHR (LH-receptor) agonist, which tricks the testis into producing testosterone.
This is where my theory comes in.
According to scientific data, when the GnRH causes LH and FSH secretion, there is a permissive action of FSH on LH receptors. The action of LH is dependent on FSH induction at Leydig cells. FSH increases LHR population in Leydig cells, thus increasing the response to LH.
Now it comes together.
At the end of a cycle, both LH and FSH secretion are minimal due to negative feedback loops. When we take HCG to mimic LH action of testosterone production are we really doing much considering the low concentration of FSH? My theory would say no, but again this is just theory.
Could an FSH analog increase the effectivness of HCG by permissive action during pct?
Anyway i thought this would be an interesting discussion.
What do you guys think?

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