I was wondering if any of you trusted bros could help answer a question for me ( & I'll do my own research as well). If a woman was giving oral sex to a man, but no orgasm took place, what are the odds of the man contracting an STD or HIV? Obviously it is the transfer of bodily fluids that does it. But what if no fluids were transfered, except for possible small amount of her saliva entering the man? I'm not sure if that can happen or not but it seems possible. Thanks for any help guys, I really appreciate it.