I was wondering if any of you trusted bros could help answer a question for me ( & I'll do my own research as well). If a woman was giving oral sex to a man, but no orgasm took place, what are the odds of the man contracting an STD or HIV? Obviously it is the transfer of bodily fluids that does it. But what if no fluids were transfered, except for possible small amount of her saliva entering the man? I'm not sure if that can happen or not but it seems possible. Thanks for any help guys, I really appreciate it.

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The answer to your question is not that simple. When ever a couple has any kind of sexual encounter they are putting themselves at risk. Especially if they are one night stands or even casual encounters with the same person over periods of time. Even if it with someone you are serious about, you have no way of knowing what a person is doing every single moment of the day. The only way to advoid any type of transmission would be to use a condom, everytime! Even while engaged in oral sex.