Lots of them make the argument of entrapment. However, in order to have entrapment you have to prove (1) government inducement of the crime, and (2) the defendant's lack of predisposition to engage in the criminal conduct.
Here, the government isn't acting. However, if I were hired to defend the men, I would try to say that the government is working so closely with these groups, that they are essentially the actors inducing the crime.
The problem here is predisposition to commit the crime. Even if inducement has been shown, a finding of predisposition is fatal to the defense of entrapment. The predisposition inquiry focuses upon whether the defendant "was an unwary innocent or, instead, an unwary criminal who readily availed himself of the opportunity to perpetrate the crime." Thus, predisposition should not be confused with intent to commit the crime. The guy can have the intent to commit the crime, yet be entrapped. Also, predisposition may exist even in the absence of prior criminal involvement. A seminal case on the issue states that "the ready commission of the criminal act," such as where a defendant promptly accepts an undercover agent's offer of an opportunity to buy or sell drugs, may in and of itself establish the predisposition of the defendant.
So, what I'm saying is that I would try to make that argument if I were the defense attorney, but it is about 95% likely to fail unless the judge was buying that the government was really just acting by and through third parties and the transcripts of the conversation really showed the guy saying that he didn't want to do it and basically taking no part of it. If you had a guy like that, he probably wouldn't show up at the house with rubbers and beer in the first place...lol.