calculus help

[Checkmatebloated]

3.14rsquare

 

[studly1]

42

 

[Checkmatebloated]

Yes you are correct 42.

 

[Checkmatebloated]

I have no F'n Idea, but when in doubt 42.

 

[Warik]

Having trouble getting the inverse of this function......I don't know how to resolve the second X, can anybody help??

F(x)=3+X^2 + tan(pieX/2)

I thought to get the inverse of a function you had to swap the X's and the Y's and solve for Y...

I think that's how you do it, but I don't know what to do once you've swapped and moved 3 to the other side. You're left with a tangent on the right as well as a square. Tell your teacher to go fux0r himself.

-Warik

 

[fistfullofsteel]

You know what pisses me off? At one time I could have solved that problem. I forgot my calculus as soon as I graduated high school like I got hit over the head with something and lost my memory.

 

[fistfullofsteel]

you were doing calc2 in high school???

yep, and i kind of dug it, but the funny thing is i also had physics and hated it but at least i remember f=m*a looks like i should have hated calculus too.

 

[fistfullofsteel]

I'm sure Sir Isaac is very happy you at least remember one of his laws

i hope so, i doubt anybody will even know that i existed centuries after my death.

 

[§äñît¥ Pôí§ðñ]

Re: Re: calculus help

fux0r

-Warik

dork.

 

[Mdguy]

A function multiplied by its inverse function = 1

i.e. F(x) * Fi(x) =1

take 1 over F(x) and differentiate the function using product rule and solve for at x=3

 

[fiatconspiracy]

uh take the partial derivative of of each side with respect to y, uh then use a matrix, and uh, ask someone else.....

 

[xxxratednites]

BIGp you first 1)rewrite F(x)=3+X^2 + tan(pieX/2)
to Y=3+X^2 + tan(pieX/2)
2)then interchange the X and Y
3)solve for Y
that tangent term is really buggin me

 

[Stan O'Zolol]

This is a trick question. The function has no inverse.

 

[Fonz]

This is a trick question. The function has no inverse.

Finally. One guy figured it out.

tan(PieX/2) HAS NO KNOWN SOLUTION.

It is a vertical asymptote expressed as a decreasing
monotonic series that DOES NOT CONVERGE.

or, you can just say DNE(Does not exist)

Godspeed

 

[xxxratednites]

DAMN FONZ..............youre GOOD!!!!!!!!!!!!

 

[litig8r]

I just remebered why i went to law school........Shit that crap scares me!!!!!!


hasta

litig8r

 

[Longhorn85]

wait a minute, what is the relationship of tangent and cotangent?

Is it not true that the inverse of tan(x) = cotan(x) ?

Or did I just make that up?

What if once you isolate the x's on one side you apply a cotangent to the equation?

 

[Fonz]

Having trouble getting the inverse of this function......I don't know how to resolve the second X, can anybody help??

F(x)=3+X^2 + tan(pieX/2)

tan=sin/cos tan(exp)-1= cos/sin

Now, sin(pie/2)= 1.0 and Cos(pie/2)=0

So Tan(pie/2)=1/0=DNE

HOWEVER, lets look at the inverse:

Tan(exp)-1=cos/sin= 0/1=0

Therefore, tan(pieX/2)= 0 NOT DNE

So then,

The inverse fuction is a MIRROR image of F(x)
through the Y=X line.

Godspeed

 

[Stan O'Zolol]

Bigphysics bastard...

The x^2 term has no inverse, unless you place a restriction on the domain of x. (i.e X > 0).