Nautica, the problem with me continuing to take fina suspension is that i wont find out that i am taking the test till 12 hours in advance and the test that i just took i found out a day earlier than i was supposed to. Also, i was taking 200mg of fina suspenstion/wk and 70 mg of anavar/day for three weeks prior to the test and stopped as soon as i found out about the test. Just before i found out about the test i unfortunatly took 100 mg of fina suspension and 70 mg of anavar. Knowing this i figured i was fucked so i was going to catherize myself but i found out that the girl that i was going to get it from couldnt find where it was. So, out of hope i just filled some specimin container that i had, with my friends piss (the night of the test, it was dark yellow). I heated the urine in the microwave for 15 seconds then went to the test. I hide it simply in my pocket of my pants. When i went to go take a piss they told me to drop my pants and turn around, after that i told the guy that i was uncomfortable with him watching me so i went in the stall (i couldnt believe he was letting me) I filled the cup up with my friends urine BUT i needed more (i am a fucking idiot, i figured that the urine that i had would be enough!) so it would reach the line, and i peed to fill it up because i figured that it was better than having the whole container as my piss. So as you can see i would have no idea of where to start off with a dose! What would you suggest?
Also, how bout the alcohol thing? Do you think it would work? I would also have to drink alcohol this test so i could use that excuse or maybe i dont cause then if i dont meet the ratios then i could say that i just didnt use alcohol this time.
Wouldnt you think that it would be better to reach the ratios using test suspension because it has no metabolites. This would then suggest that i do have this high of ratios without drugs, so then they would conclude that i didnt take these substances to have an unfair advantage.
Another thing is that if they do say they have found metabolites then i could bring up the fact that on the Drug testing procedures that they have on the NCAA website says that someone is considered positive of steroids if the ratio is above 6:1 (i read this when you brought it up). They didnt go on about the metabolites. If i took this to court, or during my appeal, i could say to the NCAA "what is the reason for setting the positive of a drug test at 6:1?" I would also say "isnt it to protect atheletes from testing positive due to contaminated supplements" They would say "Yes, or maybe" and then i would say "because i took alcohol my ratios went way above the normal level (according to many studies) and once i ingested alcohol my protection was gone, dont you think that you should warn people, not to consume alcohol, prior to the test?" How does this sound?
Sorry for the long write up but i am very worried about this. I cant believe i was so dumb thinking that i could get away with this. By the way there is alot alcohol in my urine and only 700ml of 5% alcohol is need to raise levels 350%. THANK YOU VERY MUCH FOR MORE ANSWERS.