I have to say that I ASSUME you are not implying that women have "more on their plates" than men? I think that what you meant to say was "[when] women have [alot] on their plates...etc."
Right?
Right?
Cause if that's what you MEANT I would agree with you. I (and likely any other "swinging dick") could construe that as a sexist remark if it were meant that women have "more" on thier plates.
I think from a sociological standpoint it could be argued (and has in fact) that women currently are experiencing a stress load that is equitable to what men have been carrying for a long time now (generationally speaking here). Unfortunatly the female gender does not have the sociological mechanisms in place yet to deal with thier new found egalitarianism. Men have had those mechanisms for a while now and these mechanisms have been built into the socialization fabric of raising a male child (generalizations here of course). Women have, after a hard won battle, won thier equality (albeit formally so rather than some of the still existing barriers such as glass ceilings, social expectations, etc.) only in the last 50 years or so (some would argue less, some more). It should, and likely will, take numerous generations for these mechanisms to deal with certain stresses to make their way into the socialization of a female child. Unfortunatly for both sexes right now the first thing to go is in fact, libido. Until a social mechanism is incorporated to deal with this libido loss, that loss will continue.
Now to be fair, as far as this argument goes it can (and has been) argued that true to the usual case, the pendulum swings to the other side before it rests in the middle. Using this axiom one can quite easilly argue that women do in fact have MORE stress than men (cause the pendulum has swung to the other side). For example, the single mother who is expected to cover all the duties of a stay-at-home-housewife/mother/caregiver AND a bring-home-the-bacon-fix-it-when-it's-broke role. A brutal reality and a complete drain on any gender. Certainly this case does and would exist in numerous cases but smoothed over the population, can this be called a sociological generalization, or case specific hype?
In a nutshell the arguements exist and can be argued either way. But IMO (maybe I am sexist) I would argue for a version of the former rather than the latter explanation.
Gee don't I sound like I'd be fun at parties huh?