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How does Aromasin work exactly?

Smokescreen

Experienced Noob
Platinum
Does aromasin inhibit the conversion of test to estrogen?

OR

Does it block E receptors? Much like how Nolvadex (tamoxifen) works???
 
"it functions as a falsify substrate for the aromatase enzyme, & is litigated to an common, which bonds in an irreversible manner to the active site of the enzyme causing its deactivation, a consequence as well called suicide inhibition."
Aromasin-Exemestane A Steroidal Suicide Aromatase Inhibitor | Fitness and Health Guide | Information

basically it binds to the aromatase enzyme instead of test, so instead of blocking the already formed estrogen from the receptor, it blocks the test from binding to the enzyme and converting to estrogen. lowering TOTAL estrogen, and increasing free/unbound test
 
"it functions as a falsify substrate for the aromatase enzyme, & is litigated to an common, which bonds in an irreversible manner to the active site of the enzyme causing its deactivation, a consequence as well called suicide inhibition."
Aromasin-Exemestane A Steroidal Suicide Aromatase Inhibitor | Fitness and Health Guide | Information

basically it binds to the aromatase enzyme instead of test, so instead of blocking the already formed estrogen from the receptor, it blocks the test from binding to the enzyme and converting to estrogen. lowering TOTAL estrogen, and increasing free/unbound test


So is that what is what trying to tell me??
 
So is that what is what trying to tell me??

Im a little rusty on the specifics so may be mistaken, but anastrozole, letrozole and aromasin all work by inactivating the aromatase enzyme and have no effect on the actual estrogen receptor. The aromatase enzyme is responsible for converting androgens into estrogens so the more of the arotatase enzyme that is inhibited the less there is to convert androgens to estrogen thereby reducing the amount of estrogen create by that conversion process.
 
Im a little rusty on the specifics so may be mistaken, but anastrozole, letrozole and aromasin all work by inactivating the aromatase enzyme and have no effect on the actual estrogen receptor. The aromatase enzyme is responsible for converting androgens into estrogens so the more of the arotatase enzyme that is inhibited the less there is to convert androgens to estrogen thereby reducing the amount of estrogen create by that conversion process.

Is that what aromasins does? If that's the case, then what does letro and adex do? Why are they so different? Why are the results different? Why do they even exist?
 
Aromasin permanently binds to the enzyme, making it unable to do its job (convert T to E). It basically 'kills' the enzyme (which is why it's referred to as a 'suicide inhibitor'). The enzyme is then useless until it is regenerated.

Arimidex simply competes with T to bind to the enzyme.


They work differently.

word, i think a-dex is a competitive inhibitor, and i thought letro was as well.

Enzyme inhibitor - Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia

i guess aromasin would be irreversible inhibition? as opposed to the other two methods which can be overcome by an increase in test, which would overpower the competitive inhibition of the adex

this is possibly why they say there is no difference between 25mg or 50mg of aromason - beacause it targets this enzyme which is stable, and not based on testosterone concentration.

i dont know much about it though so hopefully someone else can clarify the factors that cause increases in aromatase enzyme (i know adiposity is one of these factors).. so fatter you are already the more aromisin you need, and the higher your test dosage is, the more adex you need lol.
 
the mechanisms of inhibition also explain why adex and letro have a rebound whereas aromasin does not.

aromasin eliminates the enzyme, whereas letro and adex block it, so when there is no more of this drug, the test floods into the enzymes and converts.

when you stop aromasin, you have to essentially wait for the body to produce more aromatase enzyme which is a slow process. my only confusion, is that if the body senses deactivated aromatase enzyme, would it create more, as a reaction to taking aromasin? and you would become tolerant to it?

:(
 
the mechanisms of inhibition also explain why adex and letro have a rebound whereas aromasin does not.

aromasin eliminates the enzyme, whereas letro and adex block it, so when there is no more of this drug, the test floods into the enzymes and converts.

when you stop aromasin, you have to essentially wait for the body to produce more aromatase enzyme which is a slow process. my only confusion, is that if the body senses deactivated aromatase enzyme, would it create more, as a reaction to taking aromasin? and you would become tolerant to it?

:(

Great question! K for that!
 
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