Can another androgen or anabolic agent replace testosterone and its functions?

[OXANDRIN]

For example..... Can eq replace testosterone and all the functions of testosterone in the male body?

If someone were to take 300mg of eq per week there would be some level of suppression to testosterone levels as well as dht and estrogens. But testosterone is responsible for other functions in the body....can boldenone adequately replace testosterone for those functions as well?

 

[Gobus]

Doubtful. Testosterone has a natural function in the body and does things like no other steroid can such as:
-Better moods
-Increase sex drive
-Androgenic/Anabolic in even ratios (Winstrol for example is seen as a pure anabolic)
-Stimulate formation of protein matrix ensuring strong bones
-Promote T-lymphocytic production
-Enhance memory and attentiveness

And a lot more to list. Your body was made for Test, and uses test in many other bodily functions we may have not discovered yet. Look at PubMed for all of the other studies done on Testosterone and its benefits.

 

[OXANDRIN]

bump.....

 

[Anakin]

Doubtful. Testosterone has a natural function in the body and does things like no other steroid can such as:
-Better moods
-Increase sex drive
-Androgenic/Anabolic in even ratios (Winstrol for example is seen as a pure anabolic)
-Stimulate formation of protein matrix ensuring strong bones
-Promote T-lymphocytic production
-Enhance memory and attentiveness
QUOTE]

I think the "androgenic/anabolic in even ratios" doesn't mean much. The standard by which all the other drugs' androgenic/anabolic ratios are compared is testosterone, so it is by arbitrary definition that testosterone's ratio is 1:1.
Give a lot of winstrol to a girl and see if she doesn't develop masculine traits due to its androgenic nature.

 

[psychedout]

Bump.

 

[majutsu]

Testerone is a drug that hit certain receptors with certain binding affinities. In fact, it is this receptor-profile that gives testosterone it's beneficial effects, side effects, and all other ascribed properties. In fact, the pharmacologic properties of a drug are dependent upon it's receptor-profile; this is an axiom of pharmacologic science. What causes the receptor-profile? Well, whether a chemical binds to a receptor with a certain affinity is due to the electron orbitals and valences of the compound. All the chemical interactions of a molecule (such as receptor binding and affinities) are reducible to the chemical structure of the molecule; this is an axiom of chemistry.

Since all "functions" of a drug are due to its receptor profile, and all chemical properties of a compound (like its receptor-profile) are reducible to its structure, if a drug EXACTLY matched the functions of testosterone, it would have EXACTLY the same chemical structure (i.e. be testosterone). So, in answer to your question, it is logically impossible for a different drug to have the same functions exactly as testosterone.

Furthermore, from a practical point of view, most of the synthetic testosterones (deca, primo, etc) were invented to avoid certain "functions" or properties of testosterone. So why would something successfully invented to "drop" certain "functions" of testosterone, magically have all the properties of testosterone readded 40 years later? Really, the question makes no sense. What are you really asking? What functions of testosterone do you want to keep, then we can help you better?

 

[OXANDRIN]

What functions of testosterone do you want to keep, then we can help you better?

Well an even better.....what will testosterone do that EQ (boldenone) cannot do?

 

[burban26]

Halotestin and Methyltestosterone are used in US for androgen deficient males. My dad had script for Halo. Proviron in other countries. But I'd prefer test over all these.

 

[psychedout]

Testerone is a drug that hit certain receptors with certain binding affinities. In fact, it is this receptor-profile that gives testosterone it's beneficial effects, side effects, and all other ascribed properties. In fact, the pharmacologic properties of a drug are dependent upon it's receptor-profile; this is an axiom of pharmacologic science. What causes the receptor-profile? Well, whether a chemical binds to a receptor with a certain affinity is due to the electron orbitals and valences of the compound. All the chemical interactions of a molecule (such as receptor binding and affinities) are reducible to the chemical structure of the molecule; this is an axiom of chemistry.

Since all "functions" of a drug are due to its receptor profile, and all chemical properties of a compound (like its receptor-profile) are reducible to its structure, if a drug EXACTLY matched the functions of testosterone, it would have EXACTLY the same chemical structure (i.e. be testosterone). So, in answer to your question, it is logically impossible for a different drug to have the same functions exactly as testosterone.

Furthermore, from a practical point of view, most of the synthetic testosterones (deca, primo, etc) were invented to avoid certain "functions" or properties of testosterone. So why would something successfully invented to "drop" certain "functions" of testosterone, magically have all the properties of testosterone readded 40 years later? Really, the question makes no sense. What are you really asking? What functions of testosterone do you want to keep, then we can help you better?

The question made sense for lesser minds who don't posses your wealth of knowledge.

 

[Stryker1992]

The question made sense for lesser minds who don't posses your wealth of knowledge.

Sorry, but this made me piss my pants!