bigtbone
New member
Clomid never has seemed to work for me post-cycle. I am beginning my 3rd year of medical school and we were recently studying ovulation-inducing drugs and hence clomid.
It's mechanism of action is primarily as an "antiestrogen." It occupies estrogen receptors and "deceives" the hypothalamus into sensing a low estrogen environment. The hypothalamus in turn signals the pituitary to increase gonadotropin (FSH and LH) release. Hence, Clomid doesn't directly induce FSH and LH release.
Given that males have such low reference ranges for estrogen, does deceiving the hypothalamus into sensing a low level of estrogen really cause it to release FSH and LH in men? And, if so, wouldn't aromatase levels increase resulting in greater conversion of testosterone into estrogen resulting in feedback suppression of gonadotropin release?
Just curious if anyone has read literature concerning clomiphene effects in men, or if anyone has any thoughts.
It's mechanism of action is primarily as an "antiestrogen." It occupies estrogen receptors and "deceives" the hypothalamus into sensing a low estrogen environment. The hypothalamus in turn signals the pituitary to increase gonadotropin (FSH and LH) release. Hence, Clomid doesn't directly induce FSH and LH release.
Given that males have such low reference ranges for estrogen, does deceiving the hypothalamus into sensing a low level of estrogen really cause it to release FSH and LH in men? And, if so, wouldn't aromatase levels increase resulting in greater conversion of testosterone into estrogen resulting in feedback suppression of gonadotropin release?
Just curious if anyone has read literature concerning clomiphene effects in men, or if anyone has any thoughts.

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