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androgenic effect only due to dht conversion- hairloss?

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sorry guys- i know i am going to get a bit flamed, but i am slightly confused and cant understand how one can differentiate between dht and the androgenic effect of steroids. ie if a steroid is strongly androgenic, does that mean it converts to dht, which then goes on to have the androgenic effect.

ie can a steroid be very androgenic, without raising dht levels.
i am aware that certain steroids are derived from dht, though that doesnt really clarify things in my mind at all.
you see hairloss is a big concern for me, but since starting propecia i have bloated like a sponge, so i am looking for something to make me lean without killing my hair- put simply.

cheers
 
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