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On my old board, there was always debates on androgen receptor up/down-regulation from AS usage. Most people concluded that it actually upregulated from AS use and I was just curious to what your takes are on this.
In another form, the question could be asked: Are your natural test levels higher or lower after taking a cycle (recovery time included...i.e. clomid) than if you never did one in the first place?
In another form, the question could be asked: Are your natural test levels higher or lower after taking a cycle (recovery time included...i.e. clomid) than if you never did one in the first place?
