why do low androgenic steroids supress natural test?
Can someone explain this.
How can using a steroid at a low dose with less androgenic action than one`s own natural test result in inhibition of one`s natural androgen levels?
http://jcem.endojournals.org/cgi/content/full/84/8/2705/F3
For example with the 15 mg of anavar a day example, after three days natural test is inhibited. But why?
Ok so anavar pushes the overall androgen levels with natural test to a level that negative feedback occurs. But why supress the natural test below that of what one would usually have?
I can understand it if you are using loads of test, but with a low dose of anavar why does this happen?
I hope what I wrote makes sense to you guys!
Can someone explain this.
How can using a steroid at a low dose with less androgenic action than one`s own natural test result in inhibition of one`s natural androgen levels?
http://jcem.endojournals.org/cgi/content/full/84/8/2705/F3
For example with the 15 mg of anavar a day example, after three days natural test is inhibited. But why?
Ok so anavar pushes the overall androgen levels with natural test to a level that negative feedback occurs. But why supress the natural test below that of what one would usually have?
I can understand it if you are using loads of test, but with a low dose of anavar why does this happen?
I hope what I wrote makes sense to you guys!
Last edited:

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