JayC9 Well-known member Mar 31, 2006 #2 redguru said: I can show 0 =1, by integrating by parts the following function: Click to expand... I'll take your word for it.
redguru said: I can show 0 =1, by integrating by parts the following function: Click to expand... I'll take your word for it.
majutsu Well-known member Apr 5, 2006 #3 this is old joke of course, dv=dx does not imply next line v=x. This is the trick. e.g. let v=y+3 and x=y+2 dv(a)=dy=dy(a) but v(a)=a+3 not equal to x(a)=a+2 funny old joke though
this is old joke of course, dv=dx does not imply next line v=x. This is the trick. e.g. let v=y+3 and x=y+2 dv(a)=dy=dy(a) but v(a)=a+3 not equal to x(a)=a+2 funny old joke though
redguru New member Apr 9, 2006 #5 majutsu said: this is old joke of course, dv=dx does not imply next line v=x. This is the trick. e.g. let v=y+3 and x=y+2 dv(a)=dy=dy(a) but v(a)=a+3 not equal to x(a)=a+2 funny old joke though Click to expand... Yes, a lot of people forget the arbitrary constant in the integrations.
majutsu said: this is old joke of course, dv=dx does not imply next line v=x. This is the trick. e.g. let v=y+3 and x=y+2 dv(a)=dy=dy(a) but v(a)=a+3 not equal to x(a)=a+2 funny old joke though Click to expand... Yes, a lot of people forget the arbitrary constant in the integrations.