KAYNE said:
TRUE BUT DONT BLAME ME. I ACTUALLY POSTED IT AS A JOKE. DIDNT EVEN EXPECT REPLIES.
KAYNE
I didnt mean it as an insult. Just an observation.
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KAYNE said:
TRUE BUT DONT BLAME ME. I ACTUALLY POSTED IT AS A JOKE. DIDNT EVEN EXPECT REPLIES.
KAYNE
The only thing is, if you go back to early enough versions of the bible, there's basically nothing against homsexuality in them. Just about everything that is commonly used to prove god is against homosexuality is a much later interpretation/bad translation. The old testament that Jesus would have read (and remember, he was a holy man and believed in that old testament, preached from it) did not condemn homosexuality. Adultery yes. Homosexuality no.
the Bible, which you would otherwise call the word of God -- says absolutely nothing about homosexuality. Even the mistranslated sections of Leviticus are in a context of prohibitions that the church ignores -- except for the one that, by a mistranslation, suits its loveless agenda. -MB
CRNT93 said:
This is just plain wrong.I bet you never even read the OT or did any research into this.I doubt any bible expert would agree with what you said.You could ask a jew or a christian bible scholar,doesn't matter.
What exactly are the "early enough versions" you mention?
musclebrains said:
While some scholars interpret Paul's statements -- and they are Paul's, not God's --
musclebrains said:
If you have some research that indicates the Bible isn't an interpreted translation, I'd really like to see it.
CRNT93 said:
This is just plain wrong.I bet you never even read the OT or did any research into this.I doubt any bible expert would agree with what you said.You could ask a jew or a christian bible scholar,doesn't matter.
What exactly are the "early enough versions" you mention?
wyst said:
Try this one:
King James- Deut 23:17 "There shall be no whore of the daughters of Israel, nor a sodomite of the sons of Israel"
The New King James Version translates the sodomite as a "perverted one."
King James- 1Kings 14:24: "And there were also sodomites in the land: and they did according to all the abominations of the nations which the Lord cast out before the children of Israel. The New King James Version translates sodomite as "perverted persons."
In both cases, the words sodom/sodomite (which more likely had to do bestiliality until recently) in the King James bible are mistranslations of the Hebrew word KADASH, plural KADESHIM. Got it?
Oh, and by the way, my sources are almost all practicing Christians (some are Jews). You probably should do a little more reading yourself before you make your pronouncements.
Wyst
huntmaster said:
II Timothy 3:16
All scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness